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NEET Important Questions from Biology: Check Sample Questions from Important Topics with Solutions

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NEET Biology holds the weightage of 50% i.e. 90 questions out of 180 are asked from this subject only. Some of the important topics from where candidates can expect the maximum number of questions are Plant Physiology, Genetics & Evolution, Diversity in Living World, etc. Check NEET Biology Syllabus

NEET 2021 is scheduled to be held on August 1. With around 4 months left for the exam candidates should also focus on solving the previous years’ questions along with the revision of syllabus. In the article, we have provided important questions with their solutions which help you in preparing for the exam. Some of the questions are direct while some needs in-depth understanding of the concepts to answer. Also Check NEET Biology Exam Pattern


Animal Kingdom Questions

Questions on Animal Kingdom

Question: By determining what condition can Ascaris be characterised?

  1. Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism.
  2. Presence of true coelom metamerism.
  3. Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism.
  4. Presence of neither true coelom and nor metamerism

Answer: D. Ascaris can be characterized by the presence of neither true coelom and nor metamerism.

Question: Because of what feature can Crocodile and Penguin be similar to Whale and Dogfish?

  1. Having gill slits at some stage.
  2. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch.
  3. Possess bony skeleton.
  4. Possess a strong single stranded central nervous system.

Answer: A. Having gill slits at some stage makes the Crocodile, Penguin, Whale and Dogfish be similar with each other.

Question: What do we call the eye of the octopus and eye of a cat when they show different patterns of structure yet, they perform similar functions?

  1. Homologous organs that evolved due to convergent evolution.
  2. Homologous organs that evolved due to divergent evolution.
  3. Analogous organs that evolved due to divergent evolution.
  4. Analogous organs that evolved due to the convergent solutions.

Answer: D. They are called as analogous organs that evolved due to the convergent solutions.


Evolution Questions

Questions on Evolution

Question: Comparing modern humans and their ancestors, what would be the most significant trend in evolution?

  1. Shortening of jaws.
  2. Upright posture.
  3. Increasing brain capacity.
  4. Increasing cranial capacity.

Answer: C. The significant change in trend will be the increasing brain capacity.

Question: Which of the following show Metamaric segmentation is a characteristic feature?

  1. Characteristic feature of Molusca and Platyhelminthes
  2. Characteristic feature of Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda.
  3. Characteristic feature of Annelida and Arthropoda
  4. Characteristic feature of Molusca and Chordata

Answer: C. Annelida and Arthropoda show the characteristic feature of Metamaric Segmentation.

Question: What does Industrial melanism found in peppered moth prove?

  1. Melanism is pollution generated feature.
  2. True black melanism forms from recurring random mutation
  3. Melanic form has no selective advantage in industrial area.
  4. Lighter form has no selective advantage in polluted industrial area.

Answer: B. It proves that true black melanism forms from recurring random mutation.

Question: Nereis, scorpion, cockroach, and silverfish, what do they all have as commonality?

  1. They all possess a dorsal heart
  2. They all belong to same phylum
  3. None of them is aquatic.
  4. They all have jointed paired appendges.

Answer: A. The commonality between them is that they all possess a dorsal heart.

Question: What is the role of Man in the life cycle of Plasmodium?

  1. Man is a Primary Host in Plasmodium
  2. Man is a Intermediate Host in Plasmodium
  3. None of these
  4. Man is a Secondary Host in Plasmodium

Answer: D. Man’s role is Secondary Host in the Plasmodium cycle.

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Genetics Questions

Questions on Genetics

Question: What is the Genetic Drifts Operating condition?

  1. Genetic Drift only operates in a small isolated population
  2. Genetic Drift only operates in a non – reproduction population
  3. Genetic Drift only operates in a large isolated population
  4. Genetic Drift only operates in a slow isolated population

Answer: A. The condition is that Genetic Drift only operates in a small isolated population.

Question: What do you call the result of the treatment of snakebite by antivenom?

  1. Artificially acquired passive immunity
  2. Artificially acquired active immunity
  3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
  4. None of the above.

Answer: A. The result is called Artificially acquired passive immunity.


Human Diseases Questions

Questions on Human Diseases & DNA

Question: Bacterial human disease is a term given for which of the following?

  1. Malaria, mumps, polio
  2. Plague, Leprosy, Diphtheria
  3. Cholera, typhoid, mumps
  4. TB, malaria

Answer: B. Plague, Leprosy, Diphtheria are bacterial human diseases.

Question: What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

  1. Polymorphism in sequence
  2. The double helix
  3. Error in base sequence
  4. DNA replication

Answer: A. The basis is Polymorphism in sequence.

Question: For which deficiency The first clinical gene therapy was used as treatment?

  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
  3. Chicken pox
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: B. Adenosine deaminase deficiency was the first used gene therapy treatment.

Question: What causes the common cold which cannot be cured by antibiotics?

  1. As it caused by a virus
  2. Casued by gram + bacterium
  3. Not an infectious disease
  4. Caused by gram - bacterium

Answer: A. A virus causes it and hence cannot be treated or cured by antibiotics.

Question: If the Anticodon is to be aligned during translation, then with what of the following should it be done?

  1. 5’- UAC 3’
  2. 5’- UCA 3’
  3. 3’- UAC- 5’
  4. 3’- CAU- 5’

Answer: C. Should be aligned with 3’- UAC- 5’ during translation.

Question: When or how does frame shift mutation occur?

  1. It occurs when the base is deleted or added
  2. It occurs when base is added
  3. It occurs when base is deleted
  4. Anticodons are present

Answer: A. When the base is deleted or added frame shift mutation occurs.

Question: Let us say gene encoding of the polypeptide of 50 amino acids has UAC at the 25th position mutated to UAA, What will be the resulting formation?

  1. A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
  2. A polypeptide of 245 amino acids will be formed
  3. A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
  4. Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed

Answer: A. The resulting formation will be a polypeptide of 24 amino acids.

Question: What is the estimated count of the total number of nitrogenous basis in the human genome?

  1. 3 thousand
  2. 35 thousand
  3. 3.1 billion
  4. 35 million

Answer: C. The total count of the estimate is 3.1 billion.

Question: Rust, mushroom, and smut, which category does all these three belong to?

  1. All three of them are bear ascocarps
  2. All three of them are bear basidiocarps
  3. All three of them are Pathogens
  4. All three of them are Saprobes

Answer: B. Basidiocarps is the category rust, mushroom and smut belongs to.


Multiple Topics Questions

Questions on Multiple Topics

Question: What is the name of the material the outermost limiting layer of mycoplasma is made of?

  1. Cell Membrane
  2. Cell wall
  3. Slime layer
  4. Mucilaginous sheath

Answer: A. Cell Membrane is the name of the outermost limiting layer.

Question: With whom does Azolla form its symbiotic relationship with?

  1. Chlorella
  2. Nostoc
  3. Tolypothrix
  4. Anabaena

Answer: D. Azolla forms its symbiotic relationship with Anabaena.

Question: Living organisms are defined so with which of the following characteristic feature?

  1. Growth
  2. Reproduction
  3. Ability to make sound
  4. Response to external stimuli

Answer: D. Response to external stimuli is the defining characteristic feature of living organisms.

Question: When is a dikaryon formed?

  1. The two haploid cells do not fuse immediately
  2. Meiosis is arrested
  3. Cytoplasm does not fuse.
  4. None of the above

Answer: A. When the two haploid cells do not fuse immediately, a dikaryon is formed.

Question: In which of the following condition Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body?

  1. Rhodophyceae
  2. Chlorophyceae
  3. Phaeophyceae
  4. All of these

Answer: C. Phaeophyceae is the condition in which Holdfast, stipe and frond constitute so.

Question: Write the one incorrect statement out of the following.

  1. Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal
  2. Fasciola is not a pseudocoelomate animal
  3. Fasciola is a endoparasite
  4. All of the above

Answer: A. The incorrect statement is that Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal.

Question: Which of the following cells can differentiate to perform different functions in some animals?

  1. Choanocytes
  2. Interstitial cells
  3. Gastrodermal cells
  4. Nematocytes

Answer: B. Interstitial cells can perform different functions with differentiation in some animals.

Question: What is the form of an amino acid called as when it has both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule?

  1. Acidic form
  2. Basic form
  3. Aromatic form
  4. Zwitterionic form

Answer: D. It is called as the Zwitterionic form when it has both positive and negative charges at the same time within the same molecule.

Question: What does the term synergistic action of hormones refers to?

  1. When two hormones act together but bring opposite effects
  2. When two hormones act together and contribute to the same function
  3. When one hormone affects more than one
  4. When many hormones bring about any one function

Answer: B. Synergistic action of hormones refers to two hormones acting together and contributing to the same function.

Question: What acid makes ABA act antagonistic?

  1. Gibberellic acid
  2. Ethylene
  3. Cytokinin
  4. IAA

Answer: A. Gibberellic acid makes ABA act antagonistic.

Question: What is resulting effect when a person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs?

  1. Cessation of breathing
  2. Reduced breathing rate
  3. No change in respiration
  4. Rapid increase in breathing rate

Answer: A. Cessation of breathing is the resulting effect of the accident to the person.

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Question: When O2 binds itself to Hb, which was of the following does not occur?

  1. Higher pH
  2. Lower temperature
  3. Lower pCO2
  4. Higher PO2

Answer: A. Higher pH does not occur or happen when O2 binds itself to Hb.

Question: What is the result when CO2 dissociates from carbamino-haemoglobin?

  1. pO2 becomes high and pCO2 becomes low
  2. pCO2 becomes high and PO2 becomes low
  3. pCO2 and PO2 are equal
  4. none of the above

Answer: A. The result is pO2 becomes high and pCO2 becomes low.

Question: To which valve’s closure, the second heart sound (dubb) is associated with?

  1. Tricuspid valve
  2. Semilunar valve
  3. Bicuspid valve
  4. Tricuspid and Bicuspid valve

Answer: B. It is associated to the Semilunar valve.

Question: Due to which ions’ differential distribution does the Potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged?

  1. Na+ ions only
  2. - Na+ ions.
  3. None of these
  4. Na+ and K+ ions

Answer: D. Due to the differential distribution of the Na+ and K+ ions.

Question: What is the second messenger in the mechanism of action of a protein hormone?

  1. Cyclic AMP
  2. Insulin
  3. Gastrin
  4. T3

Answer: A. Cyclic AMP is the second messenger in the mechanism of action of a protein homone.

Question: Which of the following acts as an example of codominance?

  1. Eye colour in Drosophilia
  2. Seed shape and colour in pee
  3. AB blood group in man
  4. Haemophilia in man

Answer: C. AB blood group in man is an example of codominance.

Question: which of the following is called as a Codon?

  1. A group of three nucleotide sequences
  2. A single nucleotide in an mRNA sequence
  3. The nucleotide units between the start and stop codes
  4. None of the above.

Answer: A. A group of three nucleotide sequences is called as a codon.

Question: Whose idea was evolution?

  1. Mendel
  2. Morgan
  3. Charles Darwin
  4. None of these

Answer: C. Charles Darwin is the person who came up with the idea of evolution.

Question: Which are the Blood types Can O Positive donate To?

  1. A+
  2. B+
  3. AB+
  4. All the above

Answer: D. All the above. O positive can donate blood to all the Rh-positive blood types, i.e. A+, B+, AB+ and O+.

Question: Humans share the most DNA with which of the following animals?

  1. Gorilla
  2. Bonobo
  3. Barbary ape
  4. Orangutan

Answer: B. Bonobo is the animal with which humans share the most DNA.

Question: The scientific management of animal husbandry includes what?

  1. Animal breeding
  2. Culture of animals
  3. Animal breeding and vaccination
  4. Animal breeding, animal livestock and rearing of animals

Answer: D. Animal breeding, animal livestock and rearing of animals are included in the scientific management of animal husbandry.

Question: Which of the following chromosomes when they become extra affects the Males with Klinefelter’s syndrome?

  1. Extra X chromosome
  2. Extra Y chromosome
  3. Extra XY chromosome
  4. Extra XX chromosome

Answer: A. Extra X chromosome affects males with Klinefelter’s syndrome when they become extra.

Question: Among the following, which is a rare blood type?

  1. O type.
  2. B positive
  3. AB negative
  4. All the above

Answer: C. The rarest blood type is AB negative blood type.

Question: Why can a Genetic Code be only triplet and not a doublet?

  1. They are not adequate to code for 20 amino acids
  2. They are adequate to code for 20 amino acids
  3. They code for less than 20 amino acids
  4. None of the above

Answer: A. Genetic code cannot be a doublet and be only a triplet as they are not adequate to code for 20 amino acids. Genetic code is a triplet codon forming 20 combinations.

Question: What do you call a Catla catla fish, when its specific names are similar to generic names?

example of:

  1. Autonym
  2. Tautonym
  3. Phylum
  4. Species

Answer: B. Tautonym is the term given when generic names and specific names are similar to each other.

Question: Find out the statement among the following that is not true in the case of an Archaebacteria.

  1. Archaebacteria is the earliest living organism which lived without oxygen. Hence they are counted as living fossils.
  2. These organisms can sustain themselves in harsh places like salty areas (Halophiles), marshy areas (Methanogens), and hot springs (Thermoacidophiles).
  3. Due to different structures of cell walls, Archaebacteria can live in various environmental conditions.
  4. Methanogens exist in herbivorous animals’ guts.

Answer: C. The wrong statement is “due to different structures of cell walls, Archaebacteria can live in various environmental conditions”.

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Question: What do you call an alliance that is formed to be beneficial between two or more than two species?

called what?

  1. Mutualism
  2. Cooperation
  3. Commensalism
  4. Symbiosis

Answer: A. Mutualism is the name of the alliance that is formed between two or more than two species which is formed for the purpose of benefit.

Question: What is the definition of wildlife from the following statements?

  1. All fauna of reserve forests.
  2. All flora and fauna of reserve forests.
  3. Organisms of reserve forests who possess a backbone.
  4. All biota without including man, crops and domestic animals.

Asnwer: D. The definition is all biota without including man, crops and domestic animals.

Question: Restriction enzymes were discovered by whom?

  1. Berg
  2. Smith and Nathans
  3. Alexander Fleming
  4. None of these

Answer: Smith and Nathans discovered the restriction enzymes.

Question: With which of the following does bacteria fragments viral DNA, to get protection from viruses?

  1. Exonuclease
  2. Gyrase
  3. Ligase
  4. Endonuclease

Answer: D. Bacteria fragments viral DNA with Endonuclease in order to get protection from viruses.

Question: Pick the right one among the following list which is eradicated?

  1. Smallpox
  2. Poliomyelitis
  3. Plague
  4. Kala-azar

Answer: A. Smallpox is eradicated.

Question: Why must wild plants be conserved?

  1. To sustain the ecosystem.
  2. TO feed wild animals.
  3. For future evolution.
  4. To integrate useful traits in upcoming varieties of crops

Answer: D. Wild plants should be conserved in order to integrate useful traits in upcoming varieties of crops.

Question: What does high Biochemical Oxygen Demand value show ?

  1. Water is uncontaminated.
  2. Water is highly contaminated.
  3. Water is polluted to some extent.
  4. None of these

Answer: B. It shows that Water is highly contaminated.

Question: In which position does amino acid change in the beta chain in the case of sickle cell anaemia?

  1. IX
  2.  X
  3. VII
  4. VI

Answer: D. It changes in the VI position of the beta chain.

Question: How is formation of DNA possible over RNA?

  1. Gyrase
  2. Helicase
  3. Ligase
  4. Reverse transcriptase

Answer: D. Reverse transciptasae makes it possible to form DNA over RNA.

Question: Which one of these following was presiding in the Mesozoic era?

  1. Birds
  2. Pisces
  3. Ruling reptiles
  4. Ruling mammals

Answer: C, Ruling reptiles were presiding in the Mesozoic era.

Question: What of the following does the morphogenetic movement entails?

  1. Cell differentiation.Pisces
  2. Motion of large cell masses.
  3. Motion of small cell masses.
  4. Motion of organs.

Answers: C. Morphogenetic movement entails the Motion of small cell masses.

Question: What is the advantage of cross – pollination?

  1. Genetic recombination
  2. Mutation
  3. Polyploidy formation
  4. Crossing over

Answer: C. Polyploidy formation is the advantage of cross – pollination.

Question: What is released by oxyntic cells in the human stomach?

  1. Mucus
  2. HCL
  3. Pepsin
  4. Rennin

Answer: A. Mucus is released in the human stomach by oxyntic cells.

Question: To which of the following is the Thoracic duct is related to?

  1. Hepatic duct
  2. Innominate vein
  3. Purkinje fibres
  4. Aorta

Answer: B. The thoracic duct is related to the Innominate vein.

Question: Which shape does the Human spine represents?

  1. L shape
  2. S shape
  3. J shape
  4. M shape

Answer: B. The human spine represents S shape.

Question: What will be the outcome of aerobic respiration?

  1. Ethyl alcohol
  2. Pyruvic acid
  3. Malic acid
  4. Lactic acid

Answer: C. Malic acid is the outcome of aerobic respiration.

Question: Important micronutrients are obtained by plants because of which of the following process?

  1. Generated by enzymes.
  2. Absorbed from soil.
  3. Released by growth hormones.
  4. Produced during photosynthesis.

Answer: B. Absorbed from soil is the process by which important micronutrients are obtained by plants.

Question: How do you define Meiosis as from the following:

  1. Reductional
  2. Equational
  3. Double division
  4. All of these

Answer: D. All of these Meiosis is reductional, equational and is also double division.

Question: How many fibres does nuclear spindle consists of how?

  1. Two
  2. Four
  3. One
  4. Three

Answer: D. Nuclear spindle consists of three fibres.

Question: Where does the Haversian canals exist?

  1. Clavicle
  2. Humerus
  3. Pubis
  4. Scapula

Answer: B. Harvesian canals exist in the Humerus.

Question: What is the color of Earthworm’s blood and why?

  1. Red in colour because of dissolved haemoglobin in the corpuscle.
  2. Blue because of dissolved haemocyanin in the corpuscle.
  3. Red because of dissolved haemoglobin in plasma.
  4. Blue in colour because of dissolved haemocyanin in plasma.

Answer. C. Red is the color of Earthworm’s blood because of dissolved haemoglobin in plasma.

Question: On whose stem is the Arrangement of vascular bundles in the formed in the shape of ring?

  1. Rice
  2. Gram
  3. Wheat
  4. Maize

Answer: B. The vascular bundles are formed in the shape of ring on the stem of Gram.

Question: What among the following Entities exhibits properties of both non-living and living?

  1. diatoms
  2. lichens
  3. bacteria
  4. viruses

Answer: D. Viruses are capable of exhibiting properties of both the living and non – living.

Question: Which has a smaller intestine?

  1. carnivore
  2. herbivore
  3. both a and b
  4. none of the above

Answer: A. Carnivore has small intestine.

Question: The blood plasma transports which of these following substances?

  1. Potasium
  2. Food
  3. Alcohol
  4. All the above

Answer: D. All the above said things are transported by the blood plasma.

Question: What is the use of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

  1. No function
  2. Reduction of carbon dioxide
  3. Breaking down water mole
  4. Absorbing light

Answer: D. Absorbing light is the use of chlorophyll in the process of photosynthesis.

Question: What do the enzymes found in secreted intestinal juice convert?

  1. Fats into fatty acids and glycerol
  2. Proteins to amino acids
  3. Complex carbohydrates into glucose
  4. All of these

 Answer: D. All of these which are said above are converted by the intestinal juice’s enzymes.

Question: What is the name of the respiratory pigment in human beings?

  1. Insulin
  2. Enzymes
  3. Haemoglobin
  4. None of these.

Answer: C. Haemoglobin is the name of the respiratory pigment in human beings.

Question: Among the following statements, which is correct?

  1. Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
  2. Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
  3. Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
  4. Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC

Answer: D. Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC is the correct statement.

Question: What will be the result of Reduction in blood pH?

  1. reduces the rate of heart beat
  2. reduces the blood supply to the brain
  3. releases bicarbonate ioby the liver
  4. decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen

Answer: D. Decrease the affinity of Haemoglobin with oxygen will be the result if blood’s Ph level is reduced.

Question: The opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum is guarded by which of the following?

  1. Pyloric sphincter
  2. Spincter of oddi
  3. Semilunar valve
  4. Ileocaecal valve

Answer: B. Spincter of oddi guards the opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum.

Question: Where does the maximum exchange of material take place between blood and surrounding cells?

  1. Heart
  2. Capillaries
  3. Arteries
  4. Veins

Answer: C. Arteries is the place where the maximum exchange of materials takes place between blood and surrounding cells.

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